From your knowledge of Scripture and logic, is it biblically "comparable (not comparing apples to oranges) to ask: When was Jesus' sacrifice for our sins acceptable to God? (A) When he prayed (& surrendered to God) in the Garden of Gethsemane, or (B) When he died on the Cross? When reading Scripture doesn't lead my friends to come to the same conclusions (as me) regarding Acts 2:42-ff, I wonder if the logic above would help. However, I don't want to present a faulty comparison. Please advise. -- M. E.
I would say (B). Without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness (Heb 9:22) -- right?
Because if we say (A), then in effect we're saying that it was impossible for Jesus to turn back after Gethsemane. But surely that is wrong. By definition, no one can do something of his or her free will unless there is a choice. If it was impossible for Jesus to turn back, then in what sense did he "willingly" offer himself?
Don't misunderstand me. Jesus steeled himself at Gethsemane. His tremendous resolve did not give out. But it could have. That makes all the difference.
