John 4:1-2 mentions that Jesus disciples were baptizing, but Jesus had not yet died and been resurrected. So were they applying a form of the baptism of John? Did those disciples of John presumably previously baptized by him (like Andrew) need to get baptized again? -- Alberto Schirmer (Atlanta)
Yes, I understand the passage to refer to the baptism of John -- the pre-pentecostal baptism. From Pentecost on things were different. As for whether the disciples of John needed a second baptism that's very hard to prove from the Bible. While it is possible Apollos was immersed by Aquila, Acts 18:24ff never says he was. In contrast, the Ephesian disciples of John's movement who (presumably) received John's baptism some time after the new covenant was already in effect were indeed baptized by Paul. Note: these men had evidently misunderstood the message and were unaware that the Holy Spirit was even available. (Recall that John spoke about the Messiah and how the Spirit would characterize his baptism.)
The apostles themselves are not recorded as being immersed (again) at Pentecost. Jesus in fact described them as "clean" because of the word he had spoken to them (John 15). They were apparently saved before the day of Pentecost.
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